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Is The Rapture A True Doctrine?
What is the rapture? It is part of the larger false doctrine concerning the end-times known as premillennialism, which means “before the millennium (1000 years).” Although there are different “waves” of this doctrine, we will try to focus on what these “waves” have in common, namely:
No.
What is the rapture? It is part of the larger false doctrine concerning the end-times known as premillennialism, which means “before the millennium (1000 years).” Although there are different “waves” of this doctrine, we will try to focus on what these “waves” have in common, namely: (1) All the prophecies in the Old Testament concerning the kingdom of Jesus Christ and the Canaan land promise have remained unfulfilled (that is, Jesus’ kingdom has not come, yet; and Israel has not fully possessed Canaan land, yet). When Christ first came to the earth, it was for the intention of establishing a political, earthly kingdom (like the glorious kingdom of David and Solomon) that would be established in the promised land of Palestine. (2) The plan was thwarted by the Jews when they rejected Jesus and crucified Him. (3) “Plan B” was then established by God in that the church was instituted as an emergency measure. (4) When Christ returns, He will establish His earthly kingdom and reign for a thousand years. (5) Christ will actually return two times according to premillennialism (three times, when you count His first coming in Bethlehem). (6) His first “second coming” will be secret because He will raise the righteous from the dead and will cause the righteous living and resurrected righteous dead to be transported (or “raptured”) into heaven, where they will remain for seven years. (7) Those who are “left behind” on the earth will be going through a seven-year period of tribulation/persecution. (8) Jesus’ second “second coming” will not be in secret; instead Jesus will establish His earthly, political reign in the city of Jerusalem and sit on the literal throne of David. (9) Every Jew will return to the promise land and the promise land prophecies will be fulfilled. The Law of Moses will be reinstated and Christ will reign on the literal throne of David for a thousand years. (10) Satan will launch an attack on Jesus (called the “battle of Armageddon”) that will take place on the ancient hilltop of Megiddo (“Armageddon” means “hilltop of Megiddo”). Jesus will win. Finally, the wicked dead will be raised from the dead, the final judgment will commence, and eternal destinies will be decided by God, the Judge of the world.
This doctrine is false for the following reasons:
According to the rapture doctrine, the “rapture” will occur before the second coming of Christ. First, we will see as the biblical evidence sets forth that the rapture doctrine is a fantastical doctrine that has no foundation. Second, Hebrews 9:28 speaks of Jesus only returning a second time, not a third time.
According to the rapture doctrine, the rapture will be done in secret. This plainly contradicts Scriptures in that the Lord's second coming will be visible (Acts 1:11) and audible (1 Thessalonians 4:13-18).
According to the rapture doctrine, the rapture will bring up some of the righteous into heaven secretly. This is false. The righteous and wicked will be cohabiting together on earth until the end of time; then Jesus will separate the wicked from the righteous (Matthew 13:37-40).
According to the rapture doctrine, only the righteous will be raised from the dead. This is false. The dead (righteous and wicked) will hear the voice of Jesus and come forth from the graves for judgment (John 5:28-29).
According to the rapture doctrine, the church will be in heaven for seven years. This contradicts such Scriptures such as Matthew 25:31-46. When Jesus returns, eternal destinies will be decided by the Judge of the world and one will either be in eternal punishment or eternal life.
According to the rapture doctrine, events on the earth will continue after the rapture. This is false. Christians on earth are to maintain their virtuous conduct until the parousia (Greek word for “coming”) of God at which time the heavens and earth will be dissolved (2 Peter 3:10-12). There will be no future, literal “tribulation” (as defined by the premillennialists) or 1000-year reign of Christ upon the earth.
According to the rapture doctrine, many will be led to Christ after the rapture. There are no second chances given after the second coming of Christ. Many of the parables of Jesus taught about His second coming, pointing out that a person needs to be prepared (such as, the parable of the ten virgins in Matthew 25:1-13; see also 2 Thessalonians 1:6-10).
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What Is The Third Heaven In 2 Corinthians 12:1–6?
Paul wrote in 2 Corinthians 12:1–6: “It is doubtless not profitable for me to boast. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord:
Paul wrote in 2 Corinthians 12:1–6: “It is doubtless not profitable for me to boast. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord: I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago—whether in the body I do not know, or whether out of the body I do not know, God knows—such a one was caught up to the third heaven. And I know such a man—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows— how he was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter. Of such a one I will boast; yet of myself I will not boast, except in my infirmities. For though I might desire to boast, I will not be a fool; for I will speak the truth. But I refrain, lest anyone should think of me above what he sees me to be or hears from me.”
The first heaven is speaking of the sky where the birds fly (Genesis 1:20). The second heaven is speaking of outer space where the planets, stars, and galaxies are located (Genesis 1:14–16). The third heaven is referring to the place known as Paradise (which is a part of Hades – Luke 23:43 and Acts 2:27-31) where this man of 2 Corinthians 12:2 goes. This Paradise is not heaven itself but the waiting place where the righteous dead go between physical death and the judgment (Luke 16:19–31 and Revelation 20:13). Jesus also went to Paradise for three days after dying on the cross (Luke 23:43). Technically speaking, there are four heavens, since the word “heaven” also refers to place where God dwells.
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Who Is The Man of 2 Corinthians 12:1-6?
Paul wrote in 2 Corinthians 12:1–6: “It is doubtless not profitable for me to boast. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord:
Paul wrote in 2 Corinthians 12:1–6: “It is doubtless not profitable for me to boast. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord: I know a man in Christ who fourteen years ago—whether in the body I do not know, or whether out of the body I do not know, God knows—such a one was caught up to the third heaven. And I know such a man—whether in the body or out of the body I do not know, God knows— how he was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter. Of such a one I will boast; yet of myself I will not boast, except in my infirmities. For though I might desire to boast, I will not be a fool; for I will speak the truth. But I refrain, lest anyone should think of me above what he sees me to be or hears from me.”
Paul is writing about himself in the third person. He does not want his audience to think he is haughty, arrogant, or prideful. He is walking a tightrope between having to defend himself against the false teachers and at the same time not being too prideful or boastful.
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Was Christianity Originally Intended To Perpetuate Violence?
The New Testament does not support the notion that Christians ought to be coercive and violent to those who will not obey Christ (compare Acts 18:4; 26:28; 28:24). Past violent acts in the name of Christianity (such as, the Crusades, the Inquisition, the Salem Witch Trials, etc.) were not acts of Christianity but were unauthorized acts of sinful persons who claimed to be Christians.
Absolutely not!
The New Testament does not support the notion that Christians ought to be coercive and violent to those who will not obey Christ (compare Acts 18:4; 26:28; 28:24). Past violent acts in the name of Christianity (such as, the Crusades, the Inquisition, the Salem Witch Trials, etc.) were not acts of Christianity but were unauthorized acts of sinful persons who claimed to be Christians. In reality, neither were they true, New Testament Christians nor were they representing the doctrine of Christ. The New Testament does not authorize Christians to promote violence and coercion.
Love is one of the cardinal virtues of the Christian faith (1 Corinthians 13:13; 1 Thessalonians 1:3). The Bible teaches us to love our enemies (Matthew 5:43-48). Jesus rebuked John and James for their fit of rage against the Samaritans (Luke 9:51-56). When Jesus sent the disciples on the limited commission, He told them to be “harmless as doves” (Matthew 10:16). Jesus rebuked Peter for his violent outrage against Malchus, the high priest's servant (John 18:10,11; Luke 22:50,51). Jesus revealed that His kingdom was a spiritual kingdom that was unlike the kingdoms of the world that expanded by conquest (John 18:36). Jesus obeyed what He had taught when He prayed for His enemies on the cross (Luke 23:34).
The Holy Spirit continued to guide the apostles into all truth. They taught the same Christian law and doctrine, namely, “Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.” (Romans 13:10; 12:18-21; 1 Peter 3:10-11; Hebrews 12:14).
Christianity was never originally intended to be promoted by violence and coercion. It is a teaching- religion that reaches out to others by persuasion, reason, and evidence (Isaiah 1:18; 1 Peter 3:15). You must never try to “machine-gun” Christianity into someone.
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Will There Be Degrees of Reward and Punishment?
According to God’s word, there will be degrees of rewards for some of the righteous in heaven and there will also be harsher degrees of punishment for the wicked in hell. God is a just God and knows exactly what He is doing - even though we may not fully comprehend or understand it (Genesis 18:25). He knows what it is in every heart (Hebrews 4:13). God will not be mocked or fooled by anyone (Galatians 6:8,9).
According to God’s word, there will be degrees of rewards for some of the righteous in heaven and there will also be harsher degrees of punishment for the wicked in hell. God is a just God and knows exactly what He is doing - even though we may not fully comprehend or understand it (Genesis 18:25). He knows what it is in every heart (Hebrews 4:13). God will not be mocked or fooled by anyone (Galatians 6:8,9). Those who are wicked will spend eternity in hell because they deserve to go there (Romans 6:23; Revelation 20:14,15). Those who are righteous will spend eternity with God - not because they deserve it (by no means!), but because of the Lord's grace and kindness and their faithful obedience to His will (Titus 2:11-15; Revelation 14:13).
Some passages that teach the biblical doctrine of “degrees”: Matthew 10:41; 11:20-24; 25:14-30; Luke 12:47,48; 19:11-19; 2 Peter 2:20-22
Those who believe in the “annihilation” doctrine (the false idea that the wicked will be consumed by fire and thus go into extinction in hell) are proven false by such divine comparatives as “be more tolerable” for some than for others in Matthew 11:20-24; “be worse off” than others in 2 Peter 2:20-22and “more stripes” for the servant who knew better than for those who did not have enough knowledge (Luke 12:47,48)? The annihilation doctrine is a false doctrine that brings about a false hope for the wicked and anyone who dares to teach it in this life.
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Does Paul Contradict Himself On The Purpose of The Gift of Prophecy and Tongue-Speaking?
In 1 Corinthians 14, Paul issues commands on how members of the Corinthian church are to use their miraculous gifts in the assembly. They were to not abuse the gifts; instead, they were to utilize their gifts with the goal of promoting edification in the church (1 Corinthians 14:1-4).
No.
In 1 Corinthians 14, Paul issues commands on how members of the Corinthian church are to use their miraculous gifts in the assembly. They were to not abuse the gifts; instead, they were to utilize their gifts with the goal of promoting edification in the church (1 Corinthians 14:1-4).
Some skeptics assert that Paul contradicts himself in 1 Corinthians 14:22-25 as follows: (1) Paul states that tongues (the miraculous ability to speak another known language one has not studied, Acts 2:4-11) are for a sign to unbelievers (non-Christians). (2) Paul states that prophesying is for Christians (believers), not for unbelievers. (3) When the whole church comes together in one place, and the Christians speak with tongues, then those who come who are unbelievers will believe Christians are crazy. (4) Then Paul states that if Christians prophesy, any unbeliever that comes into the assembly has an opportunity to be convinced and convicted by the message of God.
The skeptic would assert that Paul had just stated that tongues are for a sign to unbelievers and prophesying is for believers. But then it is all switched in verses 24-25 when the Christians are exercising the gift of prophesy and they are able to convince and convict the non-Christians with the inspired message of God.
Once again, the skeptic has misunderstood the text.
Paul states that the gift of tongues was a sign to non-Christians. Why was the gift of tongues a sign to them?
There are several reasons: (1) If an unbeliever heard a first-century Christian speak in a foreign language he had never studied, the unbeliever would have adequate evidence to conclude it was a miracle. Many of the Jews on the day of Pentecost were convinced and convicted that the message the Galileans were speaking was true and from God because they heard these formally uneducated Galileans speak in their own language (Acts 2:1-13).
(2) The sign is also meant to be taken in a negative tone. In 1 Corinthians 14:21, Paul quotes Isaiah 28:11-12. In Isaiah’s context, the Israelites (the northern kingdom) were so hard-hearted and stubborn in breaching their covenant with God that God sent a judgment upon them (the Assyrian nation – who spoke in the Akkadian language – a foreign language that Israel would not have known) by bringing them into Assyrian captivity. Paul’s application from Isaiah: just as the northern kingdom of Israel heard tongues as a sign of judgment, so it would be also to unbelievers in the first century A.D. that God would render His judgement upon them if they did not obey the gospel of Christ (Romans 1:16; Acts 17:30; 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9).
Paul states in 1 Corinthians 14:22: “Therefore tongues are a sign, not to who believe but to unbelievers.” Paul then states: “But prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe.” The question should be asked: “What relationship does tongues have for unbelievers that prophesying does not?” We can fill in the blank: “But prophesying is not (a sign) for unbelievers but for those who believe.” Those in the church already had believed and obeyed the gospel. Therefore, they did not need any confirmatory signs to believe. One of the purposes of a miracle was to help a person come to belief in the message (Mark 16:17-20; John 20:30,31).
In verses 23-25, Paul gives a practical, common-sense illustration that bolsters his argument: If an uninformed Christian (a Christian who is ignorant to the language being spoken and ignorant to the miraculous gift of speaking in tongues in general, see verse 16) or a non-Christian is in a church assembly and everyone addressing the assembly speaks miraculously in a foreign language(s), the uninformed and the unbelievers who are present will think these Christian men who are doing the speaking (see 1 Corinthians 14:34-35) and the church as a whole are insane. The uninformed and unbelievers would not see this as a sign from God to confirm the word preached (Mark 16:17-20), but instead, they would see it more as “a sign” that this church had some issues. In particular for the unbeliever, the “speaking in tongues” had a dual purpose of teaching the unbeliever and confirming that the message was from God; whereas, the prophesying (much like preaching) simply taught and did not, necessarily, always have a detectable miraculous element that would help confirm the word for the unbeliever. The message (through prophecy in this illustration) is always the power of God unto salvation (Romans 1:16) for Christians and non-Christians alike; whereas, the obvious, miraculous element of speaking in tongues (assuming the unbeliever understands it) is primarily for the benefit of the unbeliever to be able to confirm that the message being preached is confirmed to be a message from the Supernatural One.
In verses 23-25, Paul is driving home the point that there is the superiority of intelligible speech [which would be the gift of prophecy - 1stCorinthians 14:1-4)] because you would not have to have a translator to interpret the message. The gift of prophesy as compared to delivering messages in tongues (foreign languages) unknown to the listeners is of a far superior quality because it will lead to edification for the church and it will also lead to some lost souls obeying the gospel.
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Does 1 Corinthians 10:20-21 And James 2:19 Apply Today In Reference To Demons?
When it comes to rightly dividing God’s word (2 Timothy 2:15), a worker must distinguish between the temporary and the permanent when applicable. In the first century A.D. there were evil spirits called demons who inhabited the physical bodies of human beings. God allowed Satan (and his “angels”, Matthew 25:41) to have this type of power during that temporary period of time. One purpose of demon exorcism was to demonstrate that Jesus, as the Son of God, had power in the spiritual realm as well as the other realms (Matthew 12:25–29). This was not to remain permanent (thus indicates the principal of Mark 16:20; 1 Corinthians 13:8-10).
Yes.
When it comes to rightly dividing God’s word (2 Timothy 2:15), a worker must distinguish between the temporary and the permanent when applicable. In the first century A.D. there were evil spirits called demons who inhabited the physical bodies of human beings. God allowed Satan (and his “angels”, Matthew 25:41) to have this type of power during that temporary period of time. One purpose of demon exorcism was to demonstrate that Jesus, as the Son of God, had power in the spiritual realm as well as the other realms (Matthew 12:25–29). This was not to remain permanent (thus indicates the principal of Mark 16:20; 1 Corinthians 13:8-10).
According to 1 Corinthians 10:20-21 and James 2:19, demons are real beings who exist (but are no longer allowed to inhabit the bodies of human beings). 1 Corinthians 10:20-21 also indicates that demons “hide behind” the idols that may even influence our lives today (such as covetousness – Colossians 3:5) because they serve as servants of Satan, the great tempter, who goes about like a roaring lion seeking whom he may devour (1 Peter 5:8). We do not know exactly how Satan and his demons influence us today, but it is certainly not in a direct manner. They may use the types of avenues such as the system of the world or the lusts of the flesh, the lusts of the eyes, and the pride of life (1 John 2:15-17). Even Paul stated in 1 Timothy 4:1-3 that there are false doctrines that originate with the demons because, in an indirect manner, people believe lies instead of the truth (2 Thessalonians 2:10-12).
In James 2:19, the demons still believe even today that God exists, yet do not obey Him.
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What Was The Content of The "Fruit of the Vine" in the Original Lord's Supper? Is There Any Definitive Evidence?
The Lord's Supper was a partial "carry over" of the Passover (which involved the Passover lamb, unleavened bread, bitter herbs and later on “wine”; read Exodus 12:1-11; Matthew 26:17-29).
The Lord's Supper was a partial "carry over" of the Passover (which involved the Passover lamb, unleavened bread, bitter herbs and later on “wine”; read Exodus 12:1-11; Matthew 26:17-29).
The Lord's Supper involves two elements designed for Christians to memorialize as symbols of the Lord's death:
One of the elements is "bread" (1 Corinthians 11:23-28; Matthew 26:26; Mark 14:22; Luke 22:19), specifically "unleavened" (Matthew 26:17; Mark 14:12; Luke 22:7 and perhaps alluded to in 1 Corinthians 5:7-8).
The other element is the "fruit of the vine" (Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18; called the "cup" in Luke 22:20 and 1 Corinthians 11:23-28), specifically "vine" (this word also occurs in John 15:1,4-5; James 3:12 and Revelation 14:18-19, where the figure of speech mentions "clusters" and "grapes" - a clear reference to grape juice). Another variant of the word is found in Matthew 21:33, translated "vineyard", where the "winepress" is mentioned upon which grapes were trodden to produce "wine," that is, grape juice (see Isaiah 65:8 where “wine” can mean the unfermented juice of the grape).
Regarding the drink of the Passover known as "wine", one would rightfully assume that since the bread was not allowed to contain "leaven" (because the Jews were to clean out any "leaven" in the house during the Feast of Unleavened Bread), the drink would not contain any "yeast" either (yeast would contribute to the fermentation process). God sought purity in both of those elements of the Lord’s Supper (1 Corinthians 5:8), representing the pure sacrifice of Jesus on the cross.
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Does A Prayer Have To End With Or Begin With In The Name of Jesus?
No.
It is important to understand the meaning of the phrase “in the name of Jesus.” It is a common figure of speech which refers to the authority of someone or something (for instance, “open up in the name of the law”, means “by the authority of the law, you must open your door’).
Jesus taught His disciples how to pray while He was working in His earthly ministry. When He ascended into heaven, he not only sat down at the right hand of God (Hebrews 1:1-4) but also became the Mediator between God and mankind (1 Timothy 2:5). A meditator has the capability of being able to serve both sides. Jesus fits that perfectly since He is both God and man. When Jesus spoke to His disciples in John 14:13-14, He says: “And whatever you ask in My name, that I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If you ask anything in My name, I will do it” (also, look at John 16:23,24). Jesus further states in John 14:26: “But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you.” Also, look at John 15:16: “You did not choose Me, but I chose you and appointed you that you should go and bear fruit and that your fruit should remain, that whatever you ask the Father in My name He may give you.” When Jesus is invoking His own name to be used, He is meaning His authority. The disciples would be able to do these activities in the name (or by the authority) of Jesus.
There is no set formula that must be stated at the end of a prayer to God through Jesus. In fact, a righteous person could justifiably end his prayer with the following words: “Lord, we love you and we wish to be with you in heaven forever. Amen.” If that man was following 1 Timothy 2:8 along with the other instructions of the Scriptures on prayer, then his prayer would be acceptable to the Father as it goes through the Meditator, Jesus. At the same time due to the false philosophy of pluralism, it would be expedient to mention “in the name of Jesus” at the end of public prayers in light of the fact that many are now worshiping Islam’s god or Buddha’s god. By mentioning “in Jesus’ name”, the one praying is acknowledging publicly that his prayer is directed to God through Jesus (not Mohammed, Buddha, etc.).
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What Is The Seal of the Holy Spirit?
The seal of the Holy Spirit is mentioned in several passages but remains a mystery for many students of the Scriptures.
The seal of the Holy Spirit is mentioned in several passages but remains a mystery for many students of the Scriptures.
The word “seal” (sphragis) is defined as: “an engraved object used to make a mark denoting ownership, approval, or closure of something (normally done by pressing into heated wax and usually attached to a document or letter).” (“sfragi÷ß,” Louw & Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains, 60.)
The seal is either internal (invisible) or external (visible).
There are many people who associate the seal of the Holy Spirit with the dwelling of the Holy Spirit [Please see further information concerning the possibility of the gift being or not being the dwelling in our article: “What Is The Gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:38?”] If the seal is the dwelling of the Holy Spirit, then how would anyone know that they had it?
The definition of the seal itself points to the fact that it was external. It was something visible.
Notice that Jesus' tomb was sealed with a seal by the Roman authorities. It was something visible for everyone to see (Matthew 27:66).
God promised through Abraham that through his seed all the nations of the earth would be blessed (Genesis 12:1-3). The sign or seal of this covenant was the physical (visible) circumcision of all the males (Genesis 17:1-14; Romans 4:11).
In 1 Kings 21:1-8, King Ahab wanted Naboth's vineyard. Jezebel was able to snatch it away from Naboth by writing letters in Ahab’s name and using the seal of Ahab to “authorize” the murder of Naboth. This seal was visible on the letter, giving the impression that it was authorized by Ahab.
In Esther 3:12, King Ahasuerus sealed a proclamation with his (visible) signet ring.
In 1 Cor. 9:2 when Paul calls the Corinthian brethren “the seal of his apostleship,” he is emphasizing that they are the visible proof of the legitimacy of his apostolic authority and his letters of recommendation (cf. 2 Cor. 3:1–3).” (“sfragi÷ß,”NIDNTT-A, 547.) How did Paul demonstrate he was the “evidence” (or seal) for the Corinthian church to the false teachers who claimed he was not an apostle of Christ? Answer: by imparting miraculous gifts to those who had become Christians in the first century A.D. (See also Galatians 3:1-5).
In 2 Corinthians 1:21,22 (ASV), Paul states: “Now he that establisheth us with you in Christ, and anointed us, is God; who also sealed us, and gave us the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.” How were the Christians at Corinth able to determine that Paul was sealed by the Holy Spirit? How would his audience have recognized it? Answer: he was able to perform and impart miraculous gifts that were given from the Holy Spirit. The design and purpose of the seal were for the Holy Spirit to be able to visibly guarantee the authenticity of His messengers [such as Paul and Jesus (John 6:27)] with miraculous powers so that they could serve as witnesses of the authenticity of God's message.
Ephesians 1:13,14 (ASV) states: “in whom ye also, having heard the word of the truth, the gospel of your salvation, — in whom, having also believed, ye were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, which is an earnest of our inheritance, unto the redemption of God’s own possession, unto the praise of his glory.” This passage states that the Ephesian Christians were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise. The promise is pointing back to Joel 2:28-32 (Acts 2:17-21) where there would be an outpouring of the Holy Spirit upon the members of the church in the first century A.D. This outpouring of miraculous gifts was designed to help the growth of the infant church. Notice that in the city of Ephesus Paul gives the miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit to some Ephesians in Acts 19:1-7. Paul’s letter to the Ephesian confirms these gifts by stating that they were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise.
There are three objections usually brought forth against the idea that the seal of the Holy Spirit was the confirmation of miraculous gifts as a witness to God's revealed word.
1. The first objection states, “According to Ephesians 1:3-14 all Christians receive the promises brought forth, such as the forgiveness of sins (Ephesians 1:7); therefore, all Christians receive the seal of the Holy Spirit.” We know that not all of the Christians in the first century A.D. received miraculous gifts (1 Corinthians 12:29-31). Those Christians in Ephesus who received the miraculous gifts were able to represent the whole group who had obeyed the gospel and therefore the whole Christian community could be assured that they had received the promises. Jesus (and His disciples) did not heal everyone, but the ones He healed was evidence enough that Jesus was speaking from God. In the same way, though all Christians in Ephesus did not receive miraculous ability, their gifts were enough evidence that the entire body of Christ in Ephesus had confirmation of all spiritual blessings in Christ (Ephesians 1:3).
2. The second objection is based on Ephesians 4:30 (ASV): “And grieve not the Holy Spirit of God, in whom ye were sealed unto the day of redemption.” Some have stated that if the seal is miraculous, then miracles are for today. But since miracles have ceased (1 Corinthians 13:8), then the seal of the Holy Spirit must be non-miraculous in nature. The word “unto” is the Greek word eis, which can mean “with a view to.” Paul is stating that the Ephesian Christians were sealed with miraculous gifts, which would be a view to the day of judgment. Miracles were performed in the first century that confirmed the word for all time. They do not have to be repeated over and over again (written miracles confirm the word as much as when one saw them visibly and are as equally effective, John 20:30-31). They served their purpose and function. These Christians who confirmed the word with miraculous gifts can continue to be viewed forward-looking to the day of judgment because the word that was revealed in the first century recorded that there would be a day of judgment for all of mankind to face (Acts 17:30; Revelation 20:11-15).
3. The third objection is based on 2 Timothy 2:19, but this passage does not speak of miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit. The seal of the Holy Spirit is literal language. It was something that could be visible and historically seen by those in the first century A.D. Clearly, 2 Timothy 2:19 is a figurative passage because no Christian has this statement literally written on their physical body. 2 Timothy 2:19’s seal is figure referring to Jesus as the Owner of the Christian - we belong to Him.
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What Is The Earnest of the Holy Spirit?
What is the earnest of the Holy Spirit? What does it have to do with God's plan of redemption? The earnest is mentioned in Ephesians 1:13,14; 2 Corinthians 1:22,23; 5:5.
It is the Greek word arrabon defined as: “to pledge; a word which seems to have passed from the Phoenicians to the Greeks, and thence into Latin, an earnest, i.e. money which in purchases is given as a pledge that the full amount will subsequently be paid.” (Thayer, p. 75)
Another Greek lexicon defines the word arrabon as: “originally, earnest money deposited by the purchaser and forfeited if the purchase was not completed, was probably a Phoenician word, introduced into Greece. In general usage it came to denote a pledge or earnest of any sort; in the N.T. it is used only of that which is assured by God to believers... in modern Greek arrabona is an engagement ring.” (Vine, p. 351)
Arrabon was a word that was used in the LXX (the Old Testament Greek translation) in Genesis 38. When Tamar’s husband died, she was promised another husband (another one of Judah’s sons when he became of marrying age), but the promise was never fulfilled. Therefore, Tamar took matters into her own hands and tricked Judah into conceiving a child with her (by disguising herself as a harlot). Before the sinful act, Tamar (as the harlot) asked Judah, “What will you give me?” Judah replies, “I will send to you a young goat from the flock.” But Judah did not have the young goat at that time. So Tamar asked what he would give to her as an earnest, that is, a down payment until he could send the young goat (Genesis 38:17-19). Judah gives her his signet, cord, and staff as a guarantee.
Judah --------- young goat -------------- Judah's signet, cord, staff (earnest) ---------------- Tamar
2 Corinthians 1:22,23 states: "Now he that establisheth us with you in Christ, and anointed us, is God; who also sealed us, and gave us the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.”
Notice that the earnest of the Holy Spirit is found in the heart of Paul and other true messengers. It is “in” the hearts of the three messengers – Paul, Silvanus (Silas), and Timothy. From the earlier verses, it is trustworthy and reliable. You can fully depend upon God to deliver what He said He would. God will not go back on His promise(s).
2 Corinthians 5:1-5 states: “For we know that if the earthly house of our tabernacle be dissolved, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal, in the heavens. For verily in this we groan, longing to be clothed upon with our habitation which is from heaven: if so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked. For indeed we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened; not for that we would be unclothed, but that we would be clothed upon, that what is mortal may be swallowed up of life. Now he that wrought us for this very thing is God, who gave unto us the earnest of the Spirit.”
Paul is speaking of the new, imperishable resurrected body that a person will receive the day the Lord returns. How do faithful Christians know God will give them a new body on that Day? His guarantee – His word that cannot lie (Titus 1:2) – revealed by the Holy Spirit.
Ephesians 1:13,14 states: “in whom ye also, having heard the word of the truth, the gospel of your salvation, — in whom, having also believed, ye were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, which is an earnest of our inheritance, unto the redemption of God’s own possession, unto the praise of his glory.”
It is possible that the word “which” here can go back to “the word” in verse 13. Therefore, it could read like this: “in whom ye also, having heard the word of the truth, the gospel of your salvation, — (...), which is an earnest of our inheritance, unto the redemption of God’s own possession, unto the praise of his glory.” It is also possible that the Holy Spirit himself is the earnest of the inheritance.
Father ------ (inheritance provided – Matthew 25:34) ---------------------------> Faithful Christian
Son --------- (inheritance purchased – Ephesians 1:13,14) -----------------------> Faithful Christian
Holy Spirit – (inheritance revealed and confirmed – 1 Peter 1:3-5) --------------> Faithful Christian
Scriptures (inheritance promised – Ephesians 1:13,14) ---------------------------> Faithful Christian
Father ------------> Son --------------> Holy Spirit ----------> Scriptures --------> Faithful Christian
The earnest of the Holy Spirit is the faithful and reliable word of God that was revealed by the Holy Spirit.
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What Is The Anointing of the Holy Spirit?
What is the “anointing of the Holy Spirit” mentioned in 2 Corinthians 1:22,23 and 1 John 2:20-27?
What is the “anointing of the Holy Spirit” mentioned in 2 Corinthians 1:22,23 and 1 John 2:20-27?
The Old and New Testaments use the word “anointing” to refer to an external act representing a token of God's acceptance [such as, the anointing of the priests (Exodus 29:7), the anointing of a new king (2 Samuel 5:3; 1 Kings 1:39) as well as Jesus at His baptism (Matthew 3:13-17; Luke 4:18; Acts 4:27; 10:38) and coronation (Hebrews 1:8-9).]
The false teachers of 1 John were claiming to have some type of superior knowledge (an early form of the false heresy known as Gnosticism). In order to combat these false teachings, the aged John argues that the Christians staying true to the faith had God’s anointing. 1 John 2:20-27 provides hints as to what this anointing is/means:
“But you have an anointing from the Holy One, and you know all things. I have not written to you because you do not know the truth, but because you know it, and that no lie is of the truth. Who is a liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is the antichrist who denies the Father and the Son. Whoever denies the Son does not have the Father either; he who acknowledges the Son has the Father also. Therefore let that abide in you which you heard from the beginning. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, you also will abide in the Son and in the Father. And this is the promise that He has promised us—eternal life. These things I have written to you concerning those who try to deceive you. But the anointing which you have received from Him abides in you, and you do not need that anyone teaches you; but as the same anointing teaches you concerning all things, and is true, and is not a lie, and just as it has taught you, you will abide in Him.”
Notice that this anointing provided the early Christians with knowing all things – knowing the truth – that Jesus is the Messiah. If an early Christian had the anointing of the Holy Spirit, he did not need to be taught anything. The anointing must have been a miraculous endowment from God for the early Christians in the first century A.D. They were chosen by God and God gave the evidence of external acceptance by Him of this anointing (miraculous endowment).
Also notice 2 Corinthians 1:22,23 (ASV): “Now he that establisheth us with you in Christ, and anointed us, is God; who also sealed us, and gave us the earnest of the Spirit in our hearts.”
In the context of 2 Corinthians, there were false teachers who were opposing Paul even though he was a true messenger of God. How did Paul oppose these false accusations? Answer: Paul was able to confirm that he was anointed and therefore appointed by God as God’s messenger of truth through the miracles he performed before the Corinthian brethren (2 Corinthians 12:12; Mark 16:17-20).
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Does Water Baptism Wash Away The Sin of Adultery?
This question is what would be known as a complex question because it can be answered both “yes” and “no”.
This question is what would be known as a complex question because it can be answered both “yes” and “no”. A complex question is one “that has a presupposition built in, which implies something but protects the one asking the question from accusations of false claims. It is a form of misleading discourse, and it is a fallacy when the audience does not detect the assumed information implicit in the question and accepts it as a fact.”(https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/tools/lp/Bo/LogicalFallacies/69/Complex-Question-Fallacy)
An example of this type of logical fallacy is: “Have you stopped beating your wife yet?” If you answer “yes”, then you are implying you have been previously beating her (when you have not). If you answer “no”, then you have not stopped the activity of beating your wife.
There are actually two questions inherent in this question. The first question is: “Does water wash away the sin of adultery?”
The Bible teaches that all sins can be forgiven by God. The one exception is the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit (which you can read here: http://thegospelofchrist.com/pages-qanda/47blasphemingholyspirit—holyspirit.html).
Major Premise: All sins can be forgiven by God (Luke 5:21; Psalm 51).
Minor Premise: Adultery is a sin (1 Corinthians 6:9-11; Hebrews 13:4; Matthew 5:31,32; 19:9; Galatians 5:19-21).
Conclusion: Therefore, adultery can be forgiven by God.
When a person complies with the terms to obtain forgiveness that God has issued, then Jesus’ blood will wash away all sins (Colossians 2:11-12; Acts 22:16; Romans 6:3,4).
Notice that it was “terms” (plural), not just one “term” (singular). Water baptism is not the only prerequisite for being saved from sin. God states that one must believe Jesus is the Son of God (John 3:16; 8:24), repent of his/her sins (Acts 2:38; 17:30), and confess Jesus as the Son of God (Romans 10:9,10).
If a person is living in fornication (or adultery – Colossians 3:5), that person must show genuine repentance, which includes ceasing that ongoing sin/relationship. Getting out of his/her adulterous marriage shows the fruits of his/her repentance and that he/she is willing to be single (a “eunuch”) for the kingdom’s sake in accordance to God word and he/she seeks first the kingdom (Matthew 3:8; 6:33; 19:12).
There are some who teach that all you have to do is say, “I'm sorry, God. Please forgive me” and continue in the very relationship that Jesus called “committing adultery” (present tense, continuous action, Matthew 19:9). Those who teach this doctrinal error are committing the logical fallacy of special pleading.
“Special Pleading is a fallacy in which a person applies standards, principles, rules, etc. to others while taking herself (or those she has a special interest in) to be exempt, without providing adequate justification for the exemption.” (http://www.nizkor.org/features/fallacies/special-pleading.html)
Ask those teaching this error:
May a homosexual couple who are “married” legally according to the laws of land continue in their homosexual “marriage” if they simply tell God they are sorry or if they are baptized and tell God they are sorry?
May a heterosexual couple living with each other and committing fornication continue in their “co-habiting” relationship if they simply tell God they are sorry or if they are baptized and tell God they are sorry?
May a man who has four wives (such as Muslims) continue in his polygamous relationships if they simply tell God they are sorry or if they are baptized and tell God they are sorry?
A person who rightly divides the Scriptures knows the answers to these questions: (1) the homosexual couple would need to divorce civilly and show their fruits of repentance by not giving themselves over to the sin of homosexuality; (2) the heterosexual couple would have to stop living together and get married if they wanted to show fruits of repentance; (3) the man in polygamy would have to divorce the three wives that he had married and only remain faithful and loyal to the first woman he married in order to show fruits of repentance (assuming his first wife does not divorce him because of his fornication with the other three wives).
Certainly, a woman and man who are living in adultery must divorce from an unscriptural marriage in order to show that they, like Jesus, do not approve of living in an ungodly relationship before God (compare God’s people of the Old Testament being told to divorce their pagan wives in Ezra 10:10-19).
“Does baptism wash away the sin of adultery?” Yes, if and only if a person who is living in adultery is willing to show fruits worthy of repentance by getting out of that adulterous relationship.
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Does 1 Corinthians 7:27,28 Allow The Guilty Party To Remarry?
1 Corinthians 7:27,28 states: “Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Nevertheless such will have trouble in the flesh, but I would spare you.”
1 Corinthians 7:27,28 states: “Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Nevertheless such will have trouble in the flesh, but I would spare you.”
These verses have been taken out of their context to promote a false doctrine that is simply not true. These verses have been used as a “proof-text” to supposedly prove that if a person who was put away for the reason of fornication (Matthew 5:31,32; 19:9) then 1 Corinthians 7:27,28 gives him or her the right to remarry without committing the sin of adultery. But they are misinterpreting the passage and are trying to force the following idea on it: “If you are married, do not divorce. If you are divorced, you will not sin if you marry.”
Paul is not writing about the rightness or the wrongness of multiple marriages in this passage. That is a mere assertion! In the historical context, Paul was writing that, in view of “the present distress” (1 Corinthians 7:26), and the time “being short” (1 Corinthians 7:29), the wisdom of getting married was questionable because there was so much turmoil and chaos that was happening during that dark time. Paul wanted to reassure them that if a person was scripturally eligible to be married, then they could do so without sinning against God. However, God’s word is truth and does not contradict itself (John 17:17). Therefore, 1 Corinthians 7:27-28 does not contradict Matthew 19:9, nor does it authorize the “guilty” party in a scriptural marriage to remarry.
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Does Matthew 5:31,32 Authorize Those Put Away for Their Fornication to Remarry?
Matthew 5:31,32: “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except fornication causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”
Matthew 5:31,32: “Furthermore it has been said, ‘Whoever divorces his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce.’But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except fornication causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.”
The necessary implication in these verses which Jesus assumes is that if a husband puts away his wife for a cause other than fornication, his divorced wife will most likely marry again. According to what Jesus says in Matthew 19:9 when she gets remarried, she will be in a constant state of committing adultery (the force of the Greek present tense). In Matthew 5:32, Jesus is emphasizing another aspect of the severity of the husband’s decision to put away his wife for reason(s) other than fornication, namely, HE keeps on causing her to commit adultery (the force of the Greek present tense). The first husband has become an accomplice in his divorced and remarried wife’s sin of adultery because he “opened the door” to the possibility of her contracting an adulterous marriage by divorcing her for unscriptural reason(s). The only options both had (prior to her remarrying) were to remain unmarried or be reconciled/remarried to one another (1 Corinthians 7:10-11); yet he opened the door for her to remarry and she remarried – BOTH are guilty (as well as the 3rd party who married him and the 4th party who married her).
Surprisingly there are some who take the “except for fornication” in Matthew 5:32 as meaning that if the husband put away his wife because of her fornication, then she would be free to remarry another without breaking the law of Christ. Such a position, however, has Jesus contradicting himself in Matthew 19:9. Jesus’ marriage, divorce, and remarriage rule: he who divorces and marries another commits adultery (as does the one who was divorced and marries another; and the one who marries the one divorced); he also causes the one he divorced to commit adultery (assuming the person he divorces remarries another). Jesus’ exception to the marriage, divorce, and remarriage rule: if your spouse commits fornication (and you do not) and you divorce your spouse because of his/her fornication, not only do you not commit adultery by getting remarried (assuming you marry someone who is scripturally a candidate for marriage), but you are not held accountable/liable if the person you divorce remarries and, therefore, contracts an adulterous marriage.
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Does Immersion In The Holy Spirit Save People From Their Sins?
Immersion in the Holy Spirit is mentioned by John the Immerser, the forerunner for Jesus. What was the purpose of John's coming? Mark 1:4,5 states: "John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Then all the land of Judea and those from Jerusalem went out to him and were all baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins."
No.
Immersion in the Holy Spirit is mentioned by John the Immerser, the forerunner for Jesus. What was the purpose of John's coming? Mark 1:4,5 states: "John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Then all the land of Judea and those from Jerusalem went out to him and were all baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins." This water immersion was to prepare the Jews for the coming of the Messiah. Notice that the purpose of the immersion administered by John is "for the remission of sins." If John's immersion in water was "for the remission of sins," then it was essential for salvation. Those who underwent John's immersion (which was based on the future shed blood of Jesus on the cross) were retrospectively cleansed from their sins (Hebrews 9:15-17). No Jew could be saved without it (Luke 7:29-30; John 3:1-11). This is what the disciples (who would later be known as the apostles) underwent. Initially, there were disciples of John who then became disciples of Jesus (John 1:35-42; Matthew 3:8; Mark 1:4; John 15:1-4; John 17:11-12; John 4:1-2). [NOTE: Please consult our question on the Q & A: Did Those Persons Who Were Baptized Under John's Baptism Prior To The Day of Pentecost in Acts 2 Have To Be Rebaptized? for further information]. Mark 1:8(which mentions the promise of the immersion in the Holy Spirit) comes after Mark 1:4,5. This means that Jews had the "remission of sins" by being baptized in water administered by John before the immersion in the Holy Spirit was even promised. This shows that the immersion in the Holy Spirit did not have anything directly to do with being saved from sin.
Jesus mentions the promise of the immersion in the Holy Spirit in Acts 1:4,5 to His apostles (Acts 1:1-3): "And being assembled together with them, He commanded them not to depart from Jerusalem, but to wait for the Promise of the Father,' which,' He said, ‘you have heard from Me; for John truly baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now.'" The apostles were being promised the Promise of the Father, which was the immersion in the Holy Spirit. They were already saved (as we have noted previously). Therefore, the purpose of the immersion in the Holy Spirit is not directly for salvation. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was certainly important, but it was not to save people from their sins. It had another purpose.
The purpose of immersion in the Holy Spirit is given in John 14-16. These are promises that Jesus would send another Advocate who would guide the apostles into all truth. They would be equipped with power from on high (the Holy Spirit - Luke 24:44-49) so that the apostles could rightly guide the church into all the truth (Acts 2:42) and teach lost sinners how to be saved from their sins (Acts 2:38), because they were inspired men from God.
Immersion in the Holy Spirit ---> Apostles ----> Revelation on Sin, Righteousness, and Judgment -----> Sinner
(Acts 1:4,5; Luke 24:46-49) (Acts 2:1-4) (John 16:8-11; Romans 3:23; 1:16; Acts 2:38; 17:30)
The immersion in the Holy Spirit is no longer necessary because it equipped the apostles to write down all the inspired words of God in the new covenant on what we must do in order to do all things that pertain to life and godliness (2 Peter 1:3).
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How Do We Know Whether Or Not Romans 6:3-4 And Colossians 2:11-12 Are Teaching Baptism In The Holy Spirit Or Water Baptism?
How do we know Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:11-12 refer to water baptism when there is no mention of water? There are several reasons:
How do we know Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:11-12 refer to water baptism when there is no mention of water? There are several reasons:
First, Paul wrote the epistles of Ephesians and Colossians in prison. These letters share a lot of the same themes and material. Paul wrote the book of Ephesians from the perspective of Christ's glorious body, the church, which was His eternal purpose (Ephesians 3:9-11). Paul wrote the book of Colossians from the perspective of Christ as the glorious Head of the church (Colossians 1:18; 2:10,19). In supporting the Holy Spirit’s platform of unity, Paul wrote in Ephesians that there is one baptism shared by all who become Christians (Ephesians 4:4). He further writes about the marital relationship between Christ and the church. Concerning the church in Ephesians 5:26, Paul states “that He might sanctify and cleanse her with the washing of water by the word.” There is no doubt that this is an allusion to water baptism. Furthermore, Ephesians and Colossians are often labeled the twin epistles because they share a lot of the same material. By implication, we can identify the baptism of Colossians 2 as being water baptism because Paul refers to that “one baptism” that is the “washing of water by the word” (Ephesians 5:26). This cannot be a reference to the baptism in the Holy Spirit because not everyone received the baptism in the Holy Spirit. [NOTE: Please consult our question for more information: What Are The Major Differences Between Immersion Into The Holy Spirit And Water Immersion?] Since there is one baptism shared by all Christians, and since it is described as the “washing of water by the word,” and since both Ephesians and Colossians are twin epistles, then it would be the case that Paul is referencing water baptism in Colossians 2:11-12.
Second, consider Paul's statements in Romans 6:3-4: “Or do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? Therefore we were buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so, we also should walk in newness of life.” Notice that by using the personal pronoun “we” Paul is including himself among those who were baptized into Christ. Paul/Saul gives a personal account of his conversion in Acts 22:16; Ananias commands him: “And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord.’ “Be baptized” is in the imperative mood (as is “wash away your sins”) and was a command given to Saul if he wanted his sins washed away in the blood of Jesus (Revelation 1:5; Hebrews 9:13,14; Colossians 1:14,20). Notice that Paul alludes to this baptism by calling it a “form” (or pattern) of teaching that they had obeyed. A commandment is to be obeyed. Water baptism is a commandment (Acts 10:48). But baptism in the Holy Spirit is not a command, but a promise to be received by only a few (Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:5-8).
Since it is the case that Paul is including himself among those who were baptized, and since this baptism was commanded and was the way to wash away Saul’s sins, then it must be the case that Saul was water baptized to benefit from Jesus’ shed blood (Romans 6:3,4), thus being baptized into Jesus’ death (Romans 6:3,4). Therefore, Romans 6:3-4 must be referring to water baptism, not Holy Spirit baptism. The purpose of the immersion in the Holy Spirit was not to save people from their sins. [NOTE: Please consult our question: “Does Immersion In The Holy Spirit Save People From Their Sins?”]
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Does “Households” In The Book of Acts Include Infants?
Some falsely assert “households” in Acts includes infants and the need to sprinkle them (Acts 10:2,7; 11:14; 16:15,31,34).
First, we do not know whether there were infants in those households or not.
Second, there are some prerequisites to understanding and obeying the gospel. Becoming saved by the grace of God involves hearing, believing, repenting of sins, confessing the name of Jesus Christ, and being immersed for the remission of sins (Acts 18:8; 8:37; 3:19).
Some falsely assert “households” in Acts includes infants and the need to sprinkle them (Acts 10:2,7; 11:14; 16:15,31,34).
First, we do not know whether there were infants in those households or not.
Second, there are some prerequisites to understanding and obeying the gospel. Becoming saved by the grace of God involves hearing, believing, repenting of sins, confessing the name of Jesus Christ, and being immersed for the remission of sins (Acts 18:8; 8:37; 3:19).
Hearing - Can an infant hear the word of God (Romans 10:17)? Can an infant understand and process the word of God? (Luke 9:44)
Believing – Can an infant believe on Jesus Christ? If he/she can't hear the word of God, which gives faith, then how is the infant going to believe that Jesus Christ can save him/her from his sins (of course, an infant does not have sins, James 1:13-15)?
Repenting – Infants have not reached the “age of accountability” (Romans 7:12) and cannot understand the distinction between right and wrong (Deuteronomy 1:39). Infants do not understand that sin separates an accountable person from a holy and righteous God when they themselves break the law of God (Isaiah 59:1,2; 1 John 3:4). Therefore, an infant has nothing of which to repent.
Confessing – An infant cannot confess Jesus as Lord with his/her mouth. An infant cannot make a commitment to the Lord (Romans 10:9,10).
Immersion – Since for the infant there are no sins to be washed away via water baptism (which is the righteous fruit of an obedient faith – Romans 6:17-18), why would anyone want to sprinkle an infant who is sinless? Furthermore, baptism is a burial in much water, not a sprinkling (Colossians 2:11,12; Romans 6:3,4; John 3:23).
The households of Cornelius, Lydia, and the Philippian jailer had to undergo these prerequisite acts of obedient faith in order to for their sins to be washed away by the blood of Jesus.
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How Ought A Faithful Christian Spouse Treat An Unfaithful Spouse Who Has Been Withdrawn By The Congregation?
In the context of this question, the “unfaithful spouse” is referring to the Christian who is persisting in a sin habitually, that is known publicly by the members of the church, and refuses to repent of it. The Christian has received numerous opportunities to hear what the Bible teaches on that certain sin (by the eldership, the preacher, or some brethren), correction from the eldership (or the brethren), reproof from the eldership (or the brethren), the outpouring of love from the eldership (or the brethren) to repent of their sin, and the special, abiding fellowship that they have had in the past that can no longer be sustained if this Christian persists in their sin (2 Timothy 3:16,17). We are not necessarily referring to the sin of fornication or adultery in this context (Matthew 5:31,32; 19:1-12) because we understand in the nature of this case that the innocent spouse would have the Divine right to put that guilty mate away for that reason (although it would be best if the couple could work it out through repentance and a restoration of the marriage). How should a faithful Christian spouse treat an unfaithful spouse who has been withdrawn from by the congregation?
In the context of this question, the “unfaithful spouse” is referring to the Christian who is persisting in a sin habitually, that is known publicly by the members of the church, and refuses to repent of it. The Christian has received numerous opportunities to hear what the Bible teaches on that certain sin (by the eldership, the preacher, or some brethren), correction from the eldership (or the brethren), reproof from the eldership (or the brethren), the outpouring of love from the eldership (or the brethren) to repent of their sin, and the special, abiding fellowship that they have had in the past that can no longer be sustained if this Christian persists in their sin (2 Timothy 3:16,17). We are not necessarily referring to the sin of fornication or adultery in this context (Matthew 5:31,32; 19:1-12) because we understand in the nature of this case that the innocent spouse would have the Divine right to put that guilty mate away for that reason (although it would be best if the couple could work it out through repentance and a restoration of the marriage). How should a faithful Christian spouse treat an unfaithful spouse who has been withdrawn from by the congregation?
First, the faithful spouse ought to agree with the decision that was made by the congregation to withdraw fellowship from this member of the church (1 Corinthians 5:1–13). The faithful spouse ought to acknowledge to their spouse that their relationship will change drastically. The faithful spouse ought not to give any signs of approval of the unfaithful spouse's sin (Romans 1:32).
Second, the faithful spouse needs to take heed to the Divine instructions on how to treat a brother or sister in Christ in the “withdrawal” passages. The passages on withdrawal are not strong suggestions or recommendations. They are commandments. They are enjoined upon the church to follow if the situation were to rise. The congregation does not have the right to turn a blind eye to those who are living in darkness. In Matthew 18:15–17, those who are withdrawn from are to be treated like tax collectors and Gentiles. They are not to be interacted with socially in the sense of showing approval of their actions. In 2 Thessalonians 3:6, the command is to not keep company - do not mix repeatedly – in social or entertainment type situations (eating a meal and enjoying the fellowship). Paul does not want faithful Christians to misunderstand, but the end goal is to encourage the unfaithful Christian to want to change. It is their own sinful behavior that has brought shame and reproach. Love is what causes us to discipline someone (Hebrews 12:5–11). They need to know that they are loved. A faithful Christian (especially a spouse) is to help them to see the error of their ways before it is too late.
Third, a faithful Christian needs to examine himself/herself to make sure that they do not have the wrong attitude. They are to admonish them not as an enemy, but as a member of God's family. In 2 Corinthians 2, the brother who had committed fornication had turned away from his sin and Paul commanded the congregation to reaffirm their love for him showing that he had been forgiven by God of his sin. We can so easily be deceived and become like the elder brother in the parable of the prodigal sons who needed to be glad that his brother had come back to the household instead of showing the prideful attitude that he had and wanted nothing to do with him (Luke 15:22–32). We must try to persuade, love, and encourage this fallen away brother or sister to come back to the Lord.
Fourth, the duties of the spouses would remain the same. Husbands and wives ought to fulfill their obligations and duties toward each other. That would include the laundry, cooking, having sexual interaction (1 Corinthians 7:1–5), doing the work in the yard, fixing things around the house, etc. From 1 Corinthians 5:1–13, this social interaction would need to be qualified because they would be eating together, yet it should be the case that the faithful spouse would not want to show that he/she is in approval of the other spouse's sinful behavior.
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Did The Church of Christ Arise Out Of The Stone-Campbell Movement?
There are many people who are teaching that the church of Christ is just another denomination that arose out of the Stone-Campbell (Barton W. Stone and Alexander Campbell – the “Restoration” leaders) movement that started in the early 1800s in America.
No.
There are many people who are teaching that the church of Christ is just another denomination that arose out of the Stone-Campbell (Barton W. Stone and Alexander Campbell – the “Restoration” leaders) movement that started in the early 1800s in America.
First, consider the “seed principle” mentioned in Jesus’ Parable of the Sower. Luke 8:11 teaches that the seed is the word of God. The Bible teaches that a seed produces after its own kind (Genesis 1:11,12; James 1:18; 1 Peter 1:22-25). When Jesus first built the His church on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1-47), was it a denomination? The church was NOT a denomination. It was (1) pre-denominational, (2) anti-denominational, and (3) non-denominational. It is a fact that congregations of the church of Christ were being established on the seed principle (Romans 16:16). When a person receives the true word of God in a good and honest heart (not man-made traditions that pervert the Scriptures – Galatians 1:6-9), then that person becomes a true child of God/saint/disciple/Christian. Paul taught the pure gospel of Christ all over the Mediterranean world (1 Corinthians 4:15). There were congregations of the church of Christ that were started in Samaria (Acts 8), Caesarea (Acts 10,11), Antioch (Acts 11), Galatia (Acts 13-14), Macedonia (Acts 16), Athens (Acts 17), Corinth (Acts 18), Ephesus (Acts 19), and many other places. They were all united as the one body of Christ who adhered to the doctrine of Christ (2 John 1:9-11).
1 Corinthians 4:15
Paul ------------ the word of God (the seed) --------------- Corinthians ------------------- Born again
TODAY
A Christian --------- the word of God (the seed) ---------- A sinner today -------------- Born again
Second, consider the “restoration principle.” The Bible teaches that God pursues His creation who have become lost in sin by wanting to restore them in fellowship with Himself through the plan of redemption (Acts 3:19-21). God desires for us to be restored back to Him from where we turned away. There are many people who have perverted and twisted the Scriptures and who have turned away from the Scriptures for such a long time. The following is an abbreviated list of false doctrines that are taught when men refuse to follow the principle of restoration: limbo, the infallibility of the pope, purgatory, the faith-alone doctrine, the preacher is known as the pastor, infant sprinkling, baptism is pouring, mechanical instruments of music in worship, females placed in spiritual leadership roles over men, etc. The Old Testament was written for our instructions (Romans 15:4). There were men such as Josiah and Hezekiah who under the old covenant gave their heart and soul to bring themselves back to the Scriptures because the Lord authorized such (John 14:15). Any person in history who went back to what the Scriptures taught were restored back to being simply a faithful Christian. All who genuinely repent, confess and turn to God can be restored (Acts 8:20-24; Galatians 6:1-2; 1 John 1:9).
The church of Christ existed long before the Stone-Campbell movement.
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