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There are some cases where a person scripturally marries but then discovers that his/her spouse had committed fornication prior to them getting married. Are these types of cases included in the exception of Matthew 5:31,32 and 19:9, thus authorizing the innocent party to divorce and remarry?
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Acts 16:29-34: “Then he called for a light, ran in, and fell down trembling before Paul and Silas. And he brought them out and said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” So they said, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.” Then they spoke the word of the Lord to him and to all who were in his house. And he took them the same hour of the night and washed their stripes. And immediately he and all his family were baptized. Now when he had brought them into his house, he set food before them; and he rejoiced, having believed in God with all his household.”
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No.
Some teach that husbands and wives have equal roles by twisting Ephesians 5:21 (which states: “submitting to one another in the fear of God”). This verse does not teach mutual submission to the exclusion of all other passages on the divine roles of men and women.
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Paul is introducing a new topic based on the phrase “now concerning” (1 Corinthians 7:1,25; 8:1; 12:1; 16:1).
There are a variety of translations on this verse:
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Merriam-Webster defines “Incest” as follows: “sexual intercourse between persons so closely related that they are forbidden by law to marry; also: the statutory crime of such a relationship.” Such a term is not appropriate for this question because it implies sin or the breaking of a moral law. Under the Patriarchal Law (Genesis and perhaps Job), God, who has all authority and power to establish law and abolish law (Psalm 78:5; Ephesians 2:14-16; Hebrews 10:9, 16), authorized the marriage of a brother to his sister, etc. (
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2 John 1:9-11 states: “Whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ does not have God. He who abides in the doctrine of Christ has both the Father and the Son. If anyone comes to you and does not bring this doctrine, do not receive him into your house nor greet him; for he who greets him shares in his evil deeds.”
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No.
While this act is indeed sinful and in principle is condemned by God, it does not constitute the Bible’s definition/description of fornication (Matthew 5:31,32; Matthew 19:9; also see a list of acts of fornication in Leviticus 18). Fornication must involve the physical contact of one physical body (whether male to male, male to female, female to female or human to beast) with another physical body.
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1) The Bible draws a clear distinction between secular songs/music and spiritual songs/music, Ephesians 5:18-21; Colossians 3:16-17 (these passages emphasize the spiritual aspect of these songs)
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God designed and planned His church from all eternity before time began (Ephesians 3:10-11). God also designed the organization of His church so that each local congregation would appoint an eldership (a group of two or more qualified, spiritual mature Christian men who have and maintain certain qualifications of 1 Timothy 3:1–7 and Titus 1:5–12; Elders are also known as shepherds/pastors, Ephesians 4:11, bishops/overseers, Philippians 1:1; Acts 20:28, and stewards, Titus 1:7, indicating the importance and extension of their work).
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Yes.
One of the qualifications a man must have in order to be appointed to the eldership is mentioned in 1 Timothy 3:4,5, “one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence 5 (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?)” and Titus 1:6, “having faithful children.”
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Question: Is there a set “formula” that must be verbalized at baptism for one’s baptism to be valid (such as, “I baptize you in the name of Jesus” versus “I baptize you in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit”)?
Answer: No.
If there were a formula, then one would have to logically conclude that the Bible contradicts itself and therefore contains falsehoods (which it does not, John 8:31-32; 17:17; 2 Timothy 3:16-17; James 1:25). There are at least 4 variants of “in the name of” with reference to baptism:
Some skeptics falsely charge that there is a contradiction in Zechariah 14:16-21. They claim that Christians are to keep the feast of Tabernacles, yet the new covenant teaches that they (and everyone else) are no longer legally bound to the law of Moses (Romans 7:1-4). Which is correct? Is the skeptic’s charge valid? Let us rightly divide God’s word together as we search the Scriptures for the answer (2 Timothy 2:15; Acts 17:11).
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Yes.
One of the qualifications a man must have in order to be appointed to the eldership is 1 Timothy 3:4,5, “one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?)” and Titus 1:6, “having faithful children.”
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No.
Some assert that women can have leadership roles over men because of Acts 2:17-21 because there were female prophetesses in the first century A.D. They advocate from this text that women are authorized to assume authority over men.
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Verse in question: Matthew 27:46, “And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?” that is, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?”
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No.
Some assert that women can have leadership roles over men because of 2 Timothy 1:5 and 2 Timothy 3:14,15 (Timothy’s grandmother and mother – women – taught Timothy)
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Major Premise: All authorized and specified acts of New Testament church worship are actions which may have subordinate expedients (aids) authorized by God.
Minor Premise: "Singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord" is an authorized and specified act of New Testament church worship (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16)
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Many skeptics and atheists believe the existence of hell would imply that the god of Christians is evil. Bertrand Russell wrote: "There is one very serious defect to my mind in Christ's moral character, and that is that He believed in hell. I do not myself feel any person who is really profoundly humane can believe in everlasting punishment." (Russell, Why I Am Not A Christian, 1957, p. 17). Atheists charge that there can be no God if there is evil, pain, and suffering in the world because a loving God would not allow it to go on/exist. Atheists are appealing to some objective moral standard that is outside of themselves. Evil is the parasite that feeds off good.
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Yes.
There is no indication of elders in the Jerusalem church of Christ until Acts 11:30; yet they were scripturally functioning as the church of Christ.
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Old Testament prophets prophesied of the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. So, what is it?
