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Pornography is a prevalent immoral problem in our world. It can be found in magazines (Playboy), videos, movies, and the internet. It is so easily accessible and a person can remain anonymous while engaging in it. It exploits men, women, and children. When you view pornography, you are viewing someone who was created in the image of God (Genesis 1:26, 27) and how you mistreat the creation is how you also will mistreat the Creator since we all resemble His image.
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This question is what would be known as a complex question because it can be answered both “yes” and “no”.
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1 Corinthians 7:27,28 states: “Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be loosed. Are you loosed from a wife? Do not seek a wife. But even if you do marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Nevertheless such will have trouble in the flesh, but I would spare you.”
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The only scriptural reason given by Jesus whereby an “innocent party” in a God-joined marriage can divorce and remarry is “for fornication” (Matthew 19:9; 5:32). Lust (what some call “spiritual adultery”) is not the same act as fornication (one is mental the other is physical/fleshly, 1 Corinthians 6:18; Ephesians 2:3). Compare the following verses with each other to rightly divide God’s word between literal versus figurative speech:
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God has given responsibilities and obligations to be carried out by husbands and wives (see Ephesians 5:22-33). Although a husband may stop “loving” his wife or a wife may stop “submitting to” her husband, this does not mean that the marriage is no longer a marriage.
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Mark 10:11,12 states: “So He said to them, ‘Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her.And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.’”
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This is a false doctrine that contains a lot of “baggage.” We must sort this question out in the proper way according to biblical authority (Colossians 3:17). The way we would reconstruct the false teacher's syllogism would look something like this:
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There are some cases where a person scripturally marries but then discovers that his/her spouse had committed fornication prior to them getting married. Are these types of cases included in the exception of Matthew 5:31,32 and 19:9, thus authorizing the innocent party to divorce and remarry?
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