Search our Bible Knowledge Base. Use multiple keywords or choose a category/topic below. The top 50 (in number of articles) only will display. Please use the search bar for more specific inquiries.
The answer is no. A common argument used against the essentiality of water immersion in its connection to salvation is the case of Cornelius and his household from Acts 10 and 11. This argument is not sound in the least, yet the argument may be constructed as follows:
Read More
No. Some denominations take the position that the "water" of John 3:5 is referring to the physical birth of a child (the "water" birth representing the embryonic fluid inside a mother's womb). They go on to teach that a person who receives Christ as Savior is "born again" (the "Spirit" birth of John 3:5 being defined as a birth from the Holy Spirit). This is not true for several reasons.
John the Immerser taught the people that they must repent of their sins - one of the conditions of receiving the remission of sins (Matthew 3:1,2; Luke 3:7-14). In Matthew 3:7-9, John the Immerser refused to immerse some people. Why?
Read More
In the great resurrection chapter (1 Corinthians 15), Paul states on the subject something that is very perplexing and confusing to a lot of people who study the Scriptures in 1 Corinthians 15:29: "Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead?" The Latter-Day Saints will take this verse out of its context and apply it to a present-day religious practice (proxy baptism - a living person is baptized on behalf of a person who has already died so that they can receive salvation) that God never intended.
Read More
It is very clear from the Scriptures that water immersion is an essential component that is a part of how God saves an alien sinner/non-Christian from his/her sins (Mark 16:15,16; Matthew 28:18-20; Acts 2:38; 8:35-39; 10:47; 19:1-7; 22:16; 1 Corinthians 12:13; Romans 6:3,4; Galatians 3:26,27; 1 Peter 3:21). Some teachers though have proposed from 1 Corinthians 1:17 that Paul downplays water immersion and excludes it from the gospel plan of salvation. Is Paul teaching that water immersion is not essential?
Read More
A sinner who trusts and obeys Jesus Christ for his salvation will believe in Him (John 8:24), repent of his sins (Acts 3:19), confess His wonderful name (Romans 10:9,10), and be immersed in water to come into contact with the blood of Jesus that washes away his sins (Acts 2:38; 22:16; Revelation 1:5,6; Romans 6:3,4).
Read More
There is a reason why John Mark worded Mark 16:16 the way he did.
Read More
Does undergoing water immersion earn us our salvation? Are we boasting before God that we can save ourselves by our own efforts through water immersion? Absolutely not. Even though the denominational world holds this to be true, the Bible does not hold that view.
Read More
All accountable human beings have transgressed the law of God (1 John 3:4) and have sinned against a holy and righteous God (Romans 3:23). We should be eternally grateful that God is gracious and merciful who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth (Titus 2:11-14; 1 Timothy 2:4). God has set forth conditions which He has placed on man in order to receive the free gift of eternal life (Romans 5:1; Romans 6:23). God has always required man's trust (faith) and obedience to His Divine will in every dispensation (see Hebrews 11). God has stated that in order for men to be saved, they must obey the gospel of Christ:
Read More
In 1 Timothy 2:8-15, Paul is discussing the respective roles that God has ordained to both men and women in the spiritual realm. It is best to read the whole context along with verse 15 which states: "Nevertheless she will be saved in childbearing if they continue in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control."
Read More
Many denominations teach that faith alone is sufficient for salvation. They often cite Romans 10:9-10 to support their false doctrine. However, Romans 10:9-10 involves two acts of obedience, which simply means that faith plus confession leads unto salvation. Not only is such a position negated by Romans 10:9-10, but it also opens the door for other acts of obedience that lead unto salvation.
Read More
Immersion in the Holy Spirit is mentioned by John the Immerser, the forerunner for Jesus. What was the purpose of John's coming? Mark 1:4,5 states: "John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Then all the land of Judea and those from Jerusalem went out to him and were all baptized by him in the Jordan River, confessing their sins."
Read More
How do we know Romans 6:3-4 and Colossians 2:11-12 refer to water baptism when there is no mention of water? There are several reasons:
Read More
Some believe the thief died under the new covenant and not the old covenant because the thief died after Jesus died (John 19:30-33; Hebrews 9:15-17). While it is true that the thief died after Jesus died, the terms of the new covenant were not issued until Jesus taught the commission to the apostles after His resurrection (Matthew 28:18-20; Mark 16:14-20; Luke 24:44-49; John 20:21-23; Acts 1:1-8). Part of obeying the gospel under the new covenant is not only water baptism for the remission of sins but also believing/confessing that Jesus is the Son of God and that God raised Jesus from the dead (not that God “would” raise Jesus from the dead, but that He already raised Him from the dead, Romans 10:9-10). The thief died while the old covenant was still in effect.
Read More
Acts 16:29-34: “Then he called for a light, ran in, and fell down trembling before Paul and Silas. And he brought them out and said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” So they said, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household.” Then they spoke the word of the Lord to him and to all who were in his house. And he took them the same hour of the night and washed their stripes. And immediately he and all his family were baptized. Now when he had brought them into his house, he set food before them; and he rejoiced, having believed in God with all his household.”
Read More
Question: Is there a set “formula” that must be verbalized at baptism for one’s baptism to be valid (such as, “I baptize you in the name of Jesus” versus “I baptize you in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit”)?
Answer: No.
If there were a formula, then one would have to logically conclude that the Bible contradicts itself and therefore contains falsehoods (which it does not, John 8:31-32; 17:17; 2 Timothy 3:16-17; James 1:25). There are at least 4 variants of “in the name of” with reference to baptism:
